Livestock Products Technology – I

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Prepared by:
Dr. Sonu S.Nair
PhD scholar, Veterinary Microbiology, IVRI

1.Indian buffalo is also called as …………………………….
Ans: Water buffalo or arna

2. Bos taurindicus (Draughtmaster cattle) is the cross of Bos indicus and ………………….
Ans: Bos taurus

3. ………………… are ingredients that stimulate the growth and/or function of beneficial intestinal micro-organisms.
Ans: Prebiotics

4. A castrated male bovine (castrated at 6-12 weeks old) is called as …………………..
Ans: Steer or bullock

5. A male bovine castrated late in life is called as ………………………
Ans: Stag

6. A lamb in its second year with two permanent incisors replacing the lamb teeth ……………………
Ans: Hogget

7. The uncastrated male sheep is called as ……………..
Ans: Tup or ram

8. The castrated male sheep is called as ………………..
Ans: Wether

9. A female sheep which has not yet borne a lamp is called as …………….
Ans: Gimmer

10. Pigs with high frequency of double recessive ……………….. gene express a high frequency of pale, soft and exudative (PSE) meat.
Ans: Halothane gene (double recessive gene)

11. As per the EU grades, the lean meat (%) in S is ………………., E is …………………, U is …………………, R is ………………….., O is ……………………. And P is ………………………. in pig meat.
Ans: 60 or more, 55-59, 50-54, 45-49, 40-44 and <40

12. The lean meat percentage in pig is calculated using the back fart measured at the P1, P2 and P3 positions which are ………………..,    ………………. and ………………… cm from the dorsal midline.
Ans: 4.5, 6.5 and 8 cm

13. A female pig intended for breeding, after puberty and before farrowing is called as …………….
Ans: Gilt

14. Young birds of 23-28 days old 2ith an average live weight of 0.5 kg is called as ………………
Ans: Poussins

15. Broiler are normally slaughtered at ………………… days old at live weight of about 2.3 kg.
Ans: 42 days

16. Birds at the end of their laying life are called as …………………..
Ans: Boiling fowl

17. Food conversion rate of broilers is …………………………
Ans: 1.75:1

18. Food conversion rate of table ducks is ……………………….
Ans: 2.3:1

19. Feed conversion ratio of geese is ……………………………
Ans: 5:1

20. Feed conversion ration of guinea fowl is ……………………….
Ans: 3:1

21. Feed conversion efficiency of rabbits is ………………………….
Ans: 2.5:1

22. Fat % and protein % in rabbit meat is …………… and ………….. respectively.
Ans: 3.8% and 20.7%

23. Fat % and protein % in poultry meat is …………… and ………….. respectively.
Ans: 2.5% and 21.5%

24.  A small abattoir handles up to ………………. units/year and will occupy …………….. space.
Ans: 30,000 units/year , 1-2 acres

25.  A medium abattoir handles over ………………. units/year and will occupy …………….. space.
Ans: 50,000 units/year , 2-4 acres

26. A large abattoir handles over ………………. units/year and will occupy …………….. space.
Ans: 100,000 units/year ,  4-6 acres

27. One adult bovine is equivalent to ……… pigs, ……… calves or ………. Sheep.
Ans: 2 pigs, 3 calves or 5 sheep

28. Pressure of water in the mains pipeline of meat plant should be at least ……………
Ans: 20 psi

29. Floor drains should be fitted at the rate of one drain for each ……………… m2 of floor area.
Ans: 40m2

30. Water consumption for processing of cattle is ………………, pig is ………………….. and sheep is ………………………..
Ans: 700-1000 l/animal, 160-230 l/animal and 100-150 l/animal

31. The overall light intensity should not be less than ………. at all inspection points, ………… in workrooms and …………… in other areas.
Ans: 540 lux, 220 lux and 110 lux

32. The light intensities are taken at levels of …… m from the floor except in inspection area where it is ……. m.
Ans: 0.9 m , 1.5 m

33. Forage and feeding facilities must be made available in the lairage if animals are to kept for more than …………… hours.
Ans: 12 hours

34. Cattle lairage pens should be at least ……… m high.
Ans: 1.8 m

35. Cattle lairage pens should be …………….. in size to hold 20-25 cattle.
Ans: 7.6 m x 6 m

36. Sheep lairage should be ………. m high with passages of ……….. m width between them.
Ans: 0.9 m , 0.9 m

37. Recommended minimum space per animal for the housing of livestock in abattoir is ………… for cattle, …………… for pigs, …………….. for heavy pigs, calves and sheep.
Ans: 2.3-2.8 m2/head, 0.6 m2/head and 0.75 m2/head

38. The floor of stunning area is called as ……………………..
Ans: Dry landing area

39. Edible blood must be stored under refrigeration at a maximum temperature of …………………
Ans: 3 °C

40. The bleeding trough for cattle should be at least …….. m wide.
Ans: 1.5 m

41. The overhead bleeding rail for cattle should be ……….. m above the floor of the dry landing area and dressing rail should be ……….. m high.
Ans: 4.9 m , 3.4 m

42. For hygienic bleeding for edible purpose ……………… anticoagulant is used.
Ans: sodium citrate/ phosphate

43. The bleeding trough for pigs and sheep should be …….. m wide.
Ans: 1.1-1.2 m

44. The overhead bleeding rail for pig and sheep should be ……………. m high from the floor.
Ans: 2.7 m

45. The dressing rail for pig is …………… m and sheep is ……………. m high from the floor.
Ans: 3.4 m , 2.3 m

46. The slaughter rate in gravity rail system is …….. cattle/hour.
Ans: 10-40

47. The slaughter rate in intermittent powered system of line dressing is …………… cattle/hour.
Ans: 10-75

48. The slaughter rate in continuous powered system of line dressing is ………………… cattle/ hour
Ans: 40-120

49. The slaughter rate in Canpak system of line dressing is …………………. cattle/hour.
Ans: 50-150

50. In …………………. system of line dressing for cattle spreader or gambrel is not used.
Ans: Canpak system

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51. A typical scalding tank for pig is maintained at ………………… temperature.Ans: 60-62 °C

52. Effective scalding for pig requires …………… minutes at 60 °C or 5 minutes at …………….. °C.
Ans: 6 minutes, 61 °C

53. Vertical scalding of pigs reduced the incidence of …………………….. as it does not produce a rise in body temperature above 41 °C as in normal scalding.
Ans: PSE

54.Singeing of pigs is done using an oil or gas powered singer typically at ………………… for ………… seconds.
Ans: 800-900 °C, 9-12 second

55. The rail spacing should be …….. m for pigs, …… m for beef and ….. m for lamp in the chilling chamber.
Ans: 0.7m, 0.9 m, 0.5 m

56. The minimum spacing between the carcass carcases on rails should be …………….. m.
Ans: 0.3-0.4

57. Liver, lungs and kidneys are ………………. offals.
Ans: Red offals

58. Edible offals should be stored at a temperature not exceeding ……………… °C.
Ans: 3 °C

59. The internal temperature of meat and offal should not be more than ……………. and ……………… °C respectively.
Ans: 7 °C, 3 °C

60. ……………………. is a measure of the readily biodegradable material in waste water.
Ans: Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)

61. BOD is used to express the ……………………. within wastewater.
Ans: concentration of pollutant

62. …………………. is a measure of the oxygen required for the oxidation of all oxidizable organic and inorganic matter in a known volume of effluent.
Ans: Chemical oxygen demand (COD)

63. COD is used as a means to determine the ………………….. of effluents.
Ans: oxygen requirement

64. COD measurement can be used as a predictive measurement of ………………..
Ans: BOD

65. ………….. is a measure of salinity of effluents.
Ans: Chloride

66. Dry matter or total solids is the final weight of solids derived from a known amount of effluent that has been dried to a constant weight at ……………………. °C over 24 hours.
Ans: 105 °C

67. Average BOD values in mg/l is ………………. for pig meat plant, …………….. for poultry meat plant and ……………….. for cattle/sheep meat plant.
Ans: 1500-2000, 1000-1200 and 1400-3200

68. Biological wastewater treatment process work best at a pH of ………………Ans: 7

69. The maximum discharge of ammonia to sewers is …………………..
Ans: 40 mg/l

70. The maximum permissible level of nitrate in potable water is …………….
Ans: 0.5 mg/l

71. Volatile solids are used as a measure of ……………….. production.
Ans: biogas

72. ………………………… is a method of removing suspended solids, fats, grease and BOD.
Ans: Dissolved air flotation (DAF)

73. …………………, …………………… and ……………………….. are examples of flocculants.Ans: Ferrous sulphate, Sodium carbonate, Calcium carbonate

74. The proportion of the sludge which settles at the base of the clarifier is called as ………………… and the remainder is called as …………………..
Ans: return activated sludge, waste activated sludge

75. ………………………. are used to separate biomass and non biodegradable material from the treated effluent.
Ans: Clarifiers

76. In cleaning-in-place (CIP) of pipe systems, a flow rate of ……………… is needed to ensure turbulence and avoid laminar flow.
Ans:1.5-2 m/s

77. ………………….. is defined as the displacement of one fluid from a solid surface by another fluid.
Ans: Wetting

78. The primary physical reactions of cleaning are …………………., …………………….., …………………, ………………….. and ……………………..
Ans: wetting, penetration, emulsification, dispersion and solubilisation.

79. Bile proteins in evisceration areas respond well to ………………… hydrolysis.Ans: acid hydrolysis

80. Old blood stains respond well to …………………….. hydrolysis.
Ans: alternation of acid and alkaline hydrolysis

81. ………………………. Is a form of hydrolysis in which an alkali reacts with triglyceride to give glycerol and soap.
Ans: Saponification

82. ………………….. chelants inhibit the growth of scale microcrystals and act as dispersants.
And: Substoichiometric chelants

83. ………………………. and ……………………. Are examples of conventional chelating agents.
Ans: EDTA and gluconate

84. The main function of chlorine n an alkaline detergent solution is as an ………………..
Ans: oxidising agent

85. The reduction in the total viable bacterial count achieved by cleaning is of order of …………… logs/cm2.Ans: 3-4 logs

86. The spray pressure required in CIP is ………. bar for low-pressure systems and ………. bar for high pressure system
Ans: 1-3 bar, 6 bar

87. The pressure used in low-pressure rinse system, medium-pressure and high-pressure rinse system are …………. , ……………….. and ………………… respectively.
Ans: <10 bar, 20-40 bar and 60-120 bar

88. A freshly killed carcass loose …………………. % of body weight by evaporation during the first 24 hours of hanging.
Ans: 1.5-2.0 %

89. ……………… is the condensation of water vapour on meat when brought into room temperature from a cold store.
Ans: Sweating

90. ……………… is defined as the colour and general appearance of a carcass surface.
Ans: Bloom

91. ……………………. is the measure of partial vapour pressure of the foodstuffs compared to that of pure water at its surface.
Ans: Water activity or Water availability

92. The thermal death time for Salmonella Typhimurium at 60 °C is ……………. minutes at a water activity of 0.94.
Ans: 0.18 minutes

93. Curing is best adapted to those meat with high ………………… content.
Ans: fat

94. Level of sodium chloride, sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite in curing brine is …………., ……………. and ……………….. respectively.
Ans: 15-30 %, 0.15-1.5 % and 500-1000 ppm

95. Level of sugar in curing brine should be ……………………
Ans: 1-4 %

96.  Application of will convert nitroso-myoglobin to …………………… which is pink in color.Ans: nitroso-haemochrome

97. ……………………… helps for water retention in cured meat during the cooking process.
Ans: Polyphosphates

98. Hand injection of pumping brine is called as …………….
Ans: Stitching

99. The chief bacteriostatic and bactericidal substance in woodsmoke is ………………………
Ans: formaldehyde

100. ………………….. the defects caused by injection of brine into connective tissue.
Ans: Jelly pockets

Reference: Gracey’s Meat Hygiene. 11th edition. Edited by David S. Collins and Robert J. Huey. Willey Blackwell. Chapter 1-5.

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